Guest Chewie Posted February 23, 2005 Posted February 23, 2005 This is the bit I dont understand then. How is it any different connecting into a master socket, than connecting into a slave. And does this mean for it to be effective R1 and R2 would have to be connected to the terminals in every slave socket. It would be no good connecting into a junction box which feeds the slave sockets. I know you say its a situation that is very unlikely to happen and I agree it seems unecessary, but I just like to understand whats going on even if I am not going to use the feature. Thanks for your patience.
Monteey Posted February 23, 2005 Posted February 23, 2005 Because you master socket is always the first one on the line from the street/pole, if you put R1/R2 on a slave someone using a phone on the master socket would still be able to dial out at the same time even if your dialer had seized the line on the remaining slaves Mark Hawks Ex BT Openreach Field Service Now Self employed telecom and data engineer www.mphtelecom.co.uk Also back doing sub contract work in the security industry. Retained firefighter Devon and Somerset Fire and Rescue
ARJ Posted February 23, 2005 Posted February 23, 2005 Also, in addition to Monteey's answer, what you add after the Master socket is up to you, (The User). The Service provider (i.e. BT) get pissy if you start fiddling 'their' side of the Master socket. You are 'allowed' into the front part of the master socket as from that point on, any faults are the users responsibility not BT's. Therefore connect to 2&5 not A&B. - Similarly.. Any fault on your side of the electricity or water meter are your problems, prior to the meter is the service providers responsibilty. That's the defining'cut-off point. Hope that clarifies it ! ARJ A nearly retired previous installer !
Guest Chewie Posted February 23, 2005 Posted February 23, 2005 Yes thanks for all the answers guys, very helpful. As for R1 and T1 siezing the slaves though. Would this need to be connected to each socket rather than the junction box that feeds the slave sockets. I connect R and T to 2 and 5 in the master socket no problems there got that. But as far as R1 and T1 siezing the slaves it seems to me I am connecting to the same cable, just at the other end.
Guest Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 If you're using line sieze you need to disconnect the existing extension connections from the master socket. The only cable in the master should be the one to R + T in the dialler. R1 + T1 can be connected into the extension wiring anywhere, at any socket or box, although I usually use a 6 pair cable from the master to the dialler and connect one pair to 2+5 and R+T and another pair to the extension wiring that I've just removed from 2+5 from R1+T1. What you're doing with line sieze is making the phone wiring a series system, where the NTE is the first in line, with the dialler second and the extensions last. The dialler acts like a switch so it can disconnect all internal wiring and just make itself the only device on the line.
Guest Chewie Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 Brilliant Lurch thanks a lot, that makes sense now.
Guest Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 Its not really a feature used that often, but basically its a line seizure feature meaning that when the dialler is triggered, all lines connected to R1 and R2 are disconnected whilst the unit dials out, stopping other slave line users using the phone line at the same time. Personally never used it as the risk of that happening is minute. 41588[/snapback] how do you manage to remote control the equipment then? customers will pick up the line thus interfering handshake and transmission.. (besides NOT using line seize feature would be called diy in coldshire..)
Guest Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 *sigh* Think you've misunderstood again Georg. This is a standalone dialler, it doesn't get involved in remote access. If you're dialling in to onboard device without line seize and the customer picks the phone up and drops you out then you tell them not to.
Guest Posted February 25, 2005 Posted February 25, 2005 *sigh* Think you've misunderstood again Georg. This is a standalone dialler, it doesn't get involved in remote access. If you're dialling in to onboard device without line seize and the customer picks the phone up and drops you out then you tell them not to. 41708[/snapback] oh.. thx for opening my eyes I agree with Monteey in case of standalone dialers.
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